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Old Mon Apr 05, 2010, 12:53pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM) View Post
GA Umpire,

Under OBR, the batter would only be awarded 1B if the runner interfered with the defense's opportunity to field a fair batted ball.

If the runner interferes with a fielder's opprtunity to catch a foul fly, it is simply a foul ball to the batter.

JM
I know this thread has passed but I have a quote from Wendelstedt which seems to contradict this statement.

From Wendelstedt:
Quote:
By the way, this is the same for any fly ball where a runner interferes with a fielder: the runner is out and the batter is awarded first base, regardless of where the ball is touched after the interference, or what would have happened on the play. Again, if you are going to see what would have happened, why not call the batter out as well if the ball is eventually caught?
Also, from Wendelstedt:

Quote:
We agree that this doesn't seem the most ideal ruling, however, it is hard to call a ball foul when it never becomes foul. We are working though, to provide suggestions to Major League Baseball in ways to correct these issues within the spirit of the rules.
We have made the suggestion that the definitions of fair and foul balls be edited to include that a ball become fair or foul when a batted ball in flight is over fair or foul territory when interference occurs.
This, we believe, would solve the contradictions in the rulebook, and offer a solution that falls within the spirit of the rules.
It appears in an OBR game that it doesn't matter if the ball is fair/foul. Batter gets 1B on the INT. This would have been my ruling before until this thread. In an OBR game, I am still inclined to call the interfering runner out and send the batter to 1B.

I know what J/R says. Since this appears to be the way MLB is calling the play, I am wondering if JEA has something about it. Mainly b/c I would say it's author is on the same level as Wendelstedt and it would be in writing. If not, I guess the batter gets 1B in my OBR games based on the above quote.
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Old Mon Apr 05, 2010, 01:25pm
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I think if you check the full context of your first Wendelstedt quote you will find that he is talking about a fly ball in FAIR territory - not foul.

There is no way to put a batter on base when he hits the ball foul.
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Old Mon Apr 05, 2010, 02:08pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DownTownTonyBrown View Post
I think if you check the full context of your first Wendelstedt quote you will find that he is talking about a fly ball in FAIR territory - not foul.

There is no way to put a batter on base when he hits the ball foul.
No where do I see fair in the quote. It says any. Also, they go on to say that a ball cannot be judged fair/foul if it was never fair/foul to begin with. And, the second quote coincides with the idea. Both quotes say "Runner is out and batter gets 1B".

However, it also states that they are trying to get MLB to change the ruling so it can be determined if the ball is fair/foul at the time of INT. Thus, would then make the umpire judge the status of the ball at INT and whether or not to put the batter on 1B.
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