Why do we do that?

[bluezebra]

Originally posted by Whowefoolin
IT AIN'T FOR SCORING PURPOSES!!!! Whoever tells you that is going with the "tie goes to the runner" theory also.

It is only to let people (i.e., coaches, fans, players, etc...) know where the relationship to the ball and field was.

How do you mark down a caught fly ball by F3 in "fair" territory different for a caught fly ball by F3 in "foul" territory in the scorebook? You don't! Same same.

It is just for letting everyone in the ballpark know it was a close play.

It's simple. Just like your mind. You put a small "f" for foul next to the out. "Ff-3"

And, who else but the official scorer needs to know if the ball was fair or foul? Except those of us who keep score for our pleasure, or for writing-up the game for a newspaper. Fair or foul doesn't change the status of a runner trying to advance.

And what "close play" is involved on a caught fly ball? It's not a "banger" at 1B. Coaches and players (at least those with brains) know the runner can take off after the catch (or touch), so the pointing doesn't help them. Probably 99% of the fans know if the ball was fair or foul, so unless they keep score, who cares.

Bob