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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Aug 25, 2009, 11:56am
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I just had this again!

And I didn't call it this time, either. And this time, it was about a yard from the line--first base this time. The guy was just as experienced, and just as clueless about this rule.

I am going to call this someday, but it'll be on one like Hokie described.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Tue Aug 25, 2009, 01:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kevin Finnerty View Post
I just had this again!

And I didn't call it this time, either. And this time, it was about a yard from the line--first base this time. The guy was just as experienced, and just as clueless about this rule.

I am going to call this someday, but it'll be on one like Hokie described.
Wait a second....you mean R1 grabbed the ball? What was he doing in foul territory and not running on the batted ball? Why would he even be in foul territory under any circumstances? I am afraid I don't understand this one.

If you are talking about the 1st base coach, then it's not the same thing.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Tue Aug 25, 2009, 01:43pm
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R1 on 3B? :-) FED language?
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Old Tue Aug 25, 2009, 01:45pm
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No, he said it happened at first base. I want to know how a runner at first base can interfere with a foul batted ball.
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Old Tue Aug 25, 2009, 01:53pm
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The only thing I can think of is that he was on the base and grabbed the ball while it was over foul territory
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Old Tue Aug 25, 2009, 02:37pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by johnnyg08 View Post
The only thing I can think of is that he was on the base and grabbed the ball while it was over foul territory
Then why wasn't he running?
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Old Tue Aug 25, 2009, 03:40pm
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no idea...maybe he knew the ball was foul and wanted to help out? no idea
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