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Old Sun Jun 30, 2002, 12:05pm
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Posts: 175
Question Timing?

We all know that the force at 1st base on the third out negates any runs that may score prior to the force out, when F3 tags the base. However, my partner brought up a question that I could not definitively answer for him. Here is the what if:

Runner on third, two out. Batter pops up ball in infield and hesitates at the box because he thinks it went foul. Runner immediately takes off on the sound of the hit. Batter finally realizes that ball is fair and takes off. F3 fields the ball, and TAGS batter. However, the runner has crossed the plate long before the tag was made. Since the fielder chose to tag the runner instead of the base, does this become a timing play, where the run might score, even on 3rd out?

I told him that it is my opinion that the run does not score, because it doesn't matter if the tag is on the runner or the base on a force play. But, I couldn't find the definitive terms to better explain myself.

Am I right? A little help please.

[Edited by Striker991 on Jun 30th, 2002 at 12:07 PM]
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Old Sun Jun 30, 2002, 12:17pm
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Location: Spokane, WA
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From the OBR:

4.09 HOW A TEAM SCORES

(a)One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to and touches first, second, third and home base before three men are put out to end the inning. EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner advances to home base during a play in which the third out is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches first base; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by a preceding runner who is declared out because he failed to touch one of the bases.
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Old Sun Jun 30, 2002, 12:19pm
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Posts: 175
Cool Thank you

I appreciate that....
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