The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Baseball
Register FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed May 15, 2002, 10:28am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: May 2002
Posts: 2
R1 & R3 on base. R1 attempts to steal 2nd, R3 breaks for home. F6 cuts throw from F2 & throws home to get R3, but his throw goes out of play. At the time of F6's throw (release of the ball), R1 had made 2nd but R3 had not made home.
So, is F2's throw an attempted play to retire a runner or is F6's throw to the plate the "first play" by an infielder? Where R1 ends up depends on the correct answer.
CVA
Reply With Quote
  #2 (permalink)  
Old Wed May 15, 2002, 11:12am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 18,126
Quote:
Originally posted by razrback
R1 & R3 on base. R1 attempts to steal 2nd, R3 breaks for home. F6 cuts throw from F2 & throws home to get R3, but his throw goes out of play. At the time of F6's throw (release of the ball), R1 had made 2nd but R3 had not made home.
So, is F2's throw an attempted play to retire a runner or is F6's throw to the plate the "first play" by an infielder? Where R1 ends up depends on the correct answer.
CVA
No, it doesn't.

The "first play by an infielder" only applies to plays after a batted ball. This wasn't a batted ball, and it wasn't a throw by the pitcher in contact with the rubber, so it's always two bases from the time of the throw. Award R1 home.
Reply With Quote
  #3 (permalink)  
Old Wed May 15, 2002, 12:20pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: May 2002
Posts: 2
Tks Bob. Makes sense. Have a good day!
CVA
Reply With Quote
Reply

Bookmarks


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On



All times are GMT -5. The time now is 03:32pm.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1