R1 & R3 on base. R1 attempts to steal 2nd, R3 breaks for home. F6 cuts throw from F2 & throws home to get R3, but his throw goes out of play. At the time of F6's throw (release of the ball), R1 had made 2nd but R3 had not made home.
So, is F2's throw an attempted play to retire a runner or is F6's throw to the plate the "first play" by an infielder? Where R1 ends up depends on the correct answer.
CVA

No, it doesn't.

The "first play by an infielder" only applies to plays after a batted ball. This wasn't a batted ball, and it wasn't a throw by the pitcher in contact with the rubber, so it's always two bases from the time of the throw. Award R1 home.

Tks Bob. Makes sense. Have a good day!
CVA