BALK???

[Chris23]

I was doing a 15-16 year old game and i was working the plate and there was 1 out with a runner on 1st and 3rd. Everyone knows the move when the pitcher fakes a pick off throw to third then comes to first, I know you dont have to commit to throw to first in this situation, but the pitcher attemped a pick off towards third but didnt throw just faked then came to first where the runner broke for second but didnt throw instead he threw to second. I was taught that if the runner breaks in this situation of the fake to third then to first you have to throw to first. I called a balk the coach who it was against went wild. Did i make the right call??? Thanks in advance

[Tim C]

I am going to answer what "I think you asked":

1) Agreed, we all understand fake to third throw to first is OK, OK?

2) Can we assume that when F1 faked to third he disengaged (it is ALMOST impossible to do this without disengaging), OK?

3) Then F1 turned back around and R1 had all ready headed for 2nd, OK

4) F1 then threw to second, OK?

Well let's see . . . if he was disengaged he could throw darn well wherever he wanted, right.

IF HE HADN'T DISENGAGED, we have a more slippery slope AND a true third world play.

So I assume you balked F1 for throwing to second which by your view was "vacant? If you did, you kicked the call because he can make that throw to retire the attempted advance of a runner,

NOW if he didn't disengage and came back around past the plate, past first base AND then to second WITHOUT interuption then it would also NOT be a balk.

So Chris, your sentance structure, typing skills and desciption are just to confusing for me to figure out WHY you'd have balked him at all.

I am certain wrong in my interpt (I am sure) but we need a little more clear description.

[Bfair]

This is my understanding of the 3-1 move, Chris.

In all codes, if the move is made from the rubber, there must first be a legal step to 3B. No arm motion is required by any code in the feint to 3B. The legal step with the nonpivot foot is the tipoff that a pitch is not occurring.

In Fed, after the legal step, the pitcher may remain engaged with his pivot foot to the rubber, but if he then resteps toward 1B with his nonpivot foot he MUST throw to 1B because the move is still considered "from the rubber."

In OBR and NCAA, I believe he is required to have removed his pivot foot from the rubber after his step to 3B. If he remained in touch with the rubber and made a following move to 1B it would be a balk.

In all codes, once he legally steps toward 3B, his pivot foot may then disengage forward from rubber. Once disengaged, any additional movement toward 1B would not require him to throw there because he is now legally off the rubber and no longer considered a pitcher.

Finally, in all codes, if in his first legal step to 3B he were to merely turn (twist) on his nonpivot foot after it landed and throw or feint to 1B in a continuous motion (without another movement of his nonpivot foot) it would be considered a balk for throwing or feinting to a base that he did not first legally step to.

That is my understanding.........

Freix

[Huskerblue]

The pitcher can remain in contact with the pitcher's plate on a 3-1 move, but if he does, then he must make a throw to 1st, or it is a balk. Correct?

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by Huskerblue
The pitcher can remain in contact with the pitcher's plate on a 3-1 move, but if he does, then he must make a throw to 1st, or it is a balk. Correct?

That's true in FED, but not in NCAA (clearly, by rule) or OBR (by interpretation). In those latter two codes, it's a balk if the pitcher doesn't disengage on the feint to third.

[dcasimir]

Correct call Chris ! I don't know what rules you are playing under. However, if you are playing under Major League Baseball rules here is the ruling. Rule 8.05-If there is a runner, or runners it is a balk when- (c) The pitcher, while touching his plate, fails to step directly toward a base before throwing to that base; but does not require him to throw (except to first base only) because he steps. It is possible, with runners on first and third , for the pitcher to step toward third and not throw, merely to bluff the runner back to third; then seeing the runner on first start for second, turn and step toward and throw to first base. This is legal. Hope this helps. -Dave