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Another Balk Question.........
LHP with R1 only. As he begins his motion from the set, R1 deeks hard moving a step or two toward second. F1 makes a perfectly legal turn toward second and throws to F4 who is covering, believing that R1 is making a legitimate attempt to advance. Are you going to balk the pitcher for throwing to an unoccupied base? I made this a non-call last weekend and simply explained to the manager that his runner had deceived me into thinking he was advancing, and rightly then had deceived the pitcher. I know it's not covered in the rules this way specifically, but I think CS & FP would suggest I did the right thing.
Tim. |
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I found this in the JEA, Walt. The key seems to be that the umpire needs to be deceived that the runner is making a legitimate attempt to advance. I was kind of concerned that I did the wrong thing.
A casebook note was added in 1976. It clarified the issue of a pitcher making a complete turn (without hesitating toward first base) and throwing to second when the umpire believed the runner was attempting to advance...see 8.05 End Notes (b). tim. |
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Quote:
From the MLBUM The key to understanding the above two plays is for the umpire to use good judgment in deciding whether or not the runner was making an actual attempt to advance to third base or whether he was bluffing. These plays will most likely happen with a 3-2 count and two out. Tim. |
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