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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 11:06am
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Through or by

I posted this on the etemz board, but I would like to get some of you guys opinions.

R2, Infield playing in on grass, runner going on pitch. Blooper hit directly over F6's head that hits runner who is directly behind F6.

Out or play on?

Do we consider how high above F6 the ball is?

My gut tells me, unless the fielder had some chance to glove the ball, that we have an out.

What say you?
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 11:22am
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If not intentional, I say play on. What say you?
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 11:35am
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Out for interference with a batted ball.
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 11:41am
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A couple criteria have to be met for the runner to be out.

1.) Did the runner intentionally contact the batted ball? If so, the runner is out. If not, go to the next criteria.

2.) Did the fair batted ball touch the runner before is passed an infielder other than the pitcher? If it did not pass an infielder other than the pitcher, the runner is out. If it passed an infielder, continue...

3.) Could another infielder, besides the one it passed (not including the pitcher), have made a play on the ball? If another infielder could have made a play on the ball, the runner is out. If no other infielder could have made a play on the ball, play on!

-Josh
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 11:54am
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Not so fast mbyron this is not a "automatic out".
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 12:18pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bigda65
I posted this on the etemz board, but I would like to get some of you guys opinions.

R2, Infield playing in on grass, runner going on pitch. Blooper hit directly over F6's head that hits runner who is directly behind F6.

Out or play on?

Do we consider how high above F6 the ball is?

My gut tells me, unless the fielder had some chance to glove the ball, that we have an out.

What say you?
This should look familiar, da...

On this type interference, runner would be out UNLESS:
1) the defender touched the ball before it contacted the runner, or
2) the ball went "through" or "by" (i.e., within reach) of the defender, and no other defender is judged to have a play on the ball.

(Notice how "runner intent" does not factor into either of these exceptions.)

In this play, if the ball is judged to have gone "by" the fielder, and that no other fielder could have made a play, then no INT should be called. Otherwise, he's out

John
CA-D62
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 12:23pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bigda65
I posted this on the etemz board, but I would like to get some of you guys opinions.

R2, Infield playing in on grass, runner going on pitch. Blooper hit directly over F6's head that hits runner who is directly behind F6.

Out or play on?

Do we consider how high above F6 the ball is?

My gut tells me, unless the fielder had some chance to glove the ball, that we have an out.

What say you?
What rules set?

Under OBR, as a general statement, the runner is out when hit by a fair batted ball in fair territory unless "he can't reasonably be expected to avoid it" -- which means the ball is deflected, or passes so near a fielder that the runner would expect the fielder to catch the ball.

So, in your play, we DO consider how high above F6 the ball is. If it passes right past his glove, then the runner would expect him to field it, and we'd play on. If it's "well above" (and there's no way to define this), then the runner is out.

Under FED, and, I think, NCAA (given a rules change this year), we'd play on.
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 12:34pm
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Bob,

Does fed recognize the "String Theory"

obviously they do.
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 01:01pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by papablue
This should look familiar, da...

On this type interference, runner would be out UNLESS:
1) the defender touched the ball before it contacted the runner, or
2) the ball went "through" or "by" (i.e., within reach) of the defender, and no other defender is judged to have a play on the ball.

(Notice how "runner intent" does not factor into either of these exceptions.)

In this play, if the ball is judged to have gone "by" the fielder, and that no other fielder could have made a play, then no INT should be called. Otherwise, he's out

John
CA-D62
Whenever a runner intentionally contacts a ball (whether it be a hit or throw ball) the runner is out. Without the rules book in front of me, I didn't know that wasn't included in that section but I believe it applies to this situation as well.

-Josh
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 01:13pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jdmara
Whenever a runner intentionally contacts a ball (whether it be a hit or throw ball) the runner is out. Without the rules book in front of me, I didn't know that wasn't included in that section but I believe it applies to this situation as well.
Josh,

Point taken. If the criteria of either exception is met, then -- barring intent -- he would not be out for INT.

John
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Fri May 16, 2008, 07:51am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jawgaump
Not so fast mbyron this is not a "automatic out".
There are no "automatic outs" in baseball: something has to happen. In this case, INT happened. (OP didn't mention which rule set, so I'm assuming OBR; see Bob J.'s post.)
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