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Fri Jun 08, 2007, 11:25am
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In Fritz's post, why is the runner not out for interference?
He may have try to avoid contact, but he also "altered" the play to first. ?????????? Interference does not have to be intentional???????? 
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Fri Jun 08, 2007, 11:50am
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[QUOTE=jicecone]
Quote:
It was F6 who caused his "own alteration" not R1. According to the OP r1 veered away from the play meaning at the time F6 touched the bag he had a "clean shot" to throw to first. He then stumbled etc. Also, interference on a thrown ball requires intent as opposed to a batted ball which requires no intent. Pete Booth
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Peter M. Booth
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