Where to put the batter?

[DTQ_Blue]

Bases empty 3-2 on batter. Pitch is in dirt, ball 4, bounces off catchers gear and into his team's dugout.

Does batter only get first, which he had anyway on the walk, or does he get second, i.e., a one base award beyond the base he was entitled to from the walk.

This happened in a tournament game tonight.

BTW, he was the potential tying run with his team down to its last out.

[UmpJM]

DTQ_Blue,

The Batter(-runner) gets 1B. There is no "cumulative property of addition" when it comes to base awards in a game of baseball.

JM

[BigUmp56]

Originally Posted by DTQ_Blue

Bases empty 3-2 on batter. Pitch is in dirt, ball 4, bounces off catchers gear and into his team's dugout.

Does batter only get first, which he had anyway on the walk, or does he get second, i.e., a one base award beyond the base he was entitled to from the walk.

This happened in a tournament game tonight.

BTW, he was the potential tying run with his team down to its last out.

Base awards are not accumulative. On a ball thrown into dead ball territory from the rubber the award is one base from the time the ball was released. Since the batter-runner had not legally obtained first base before the ball was released, that's as far as he goes on the award. The thing to remember is that on a base on balls a batter runner may be entitled to first base, but he has to advance to first legally in order to obtain the base.


Tim.

[DTQ_Blue]

Here's the OBR rule that's puzzling me on base awards...

(i) One base, if the batter becomes a runner on Ball Four or Strike Three, when the pitch passes the catcher and lodges in the umpire’s mask or paraphernalia.
If the batter becomes a runner on a wild pitch which entitles the runners to advance one base, the batter-runner shall be entitled to first base only.

Now what does the second clause achieve if it another rule already has limited the BR to first? As I read the rule it seems to be saying that the BR can't push another runner beyond the one base he is awarded, so the BR is "limited" to one base in this situation where there are runners on base.

For example if there is a runner on first, he is awarded second and that "limits" the BR to first.

However why have this rule if it were not legal to send the BR to second if there is not a runner on base when this happens?

What would be the purpose of this rule otherwise?

[GarthB]

Originally Posted by DTQ_Blue

Here's the OBR rule that's puzzling me on base awards...

(i) One base, if the batter becomes a runner on Ball Four or Strike Three, when the pitch passes the catcher and lodges in the umpire’s mask or paraphernalia.
If the batter becomes a runner on a wild pitch which entitles the runners to advance one base, the batter-runner shall be entitled to first base only.

Now what does the second clause achieve if it another rule already has limited the BR to first? As I read the rule it seems to be saying that the BR can't push another runner beyond the one base he is awarded, so the BR is "limited" to one base in this situation where there are runners on base.

For example if there is a runner on first, he is awarded second and that "limits" the BR to first.

However why have this rule if it were not legal to send the BR to second if there is not a runner on base when this happens?

What would be the purpose of this rule otherwise?

You're reading too much into the rule. If you want to go in that direction, consider that there is only R3. B/R still gets first only.

The rule is saying to treat B/R as you would a runner.

JM has it right.