What would you do?

[BigUmp56]

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley

I'm not familiar with Roder's position(s) on this question, but Evans in the JEA rules the opposite of what youv'e stated - he says a batter runner may NOT overrun 1B on a base on balls without liability. The MLB Umpire Manual, circa 2001, incorporated the contrary interpretation, that the batter runner may overrun on a base on balls without liability to be put out.

Dave:


This is all I find in the JEA on the matter.

Professional Interpretation: Though the batter is awarded first base without liability to be put out, he does incur responsibilities: (1) He must advance to and touch the awarded base or become liable to be declared out...see 4.09(b). (2) He becomes liable to be put out if he attempts to advance after missing the awarded base. (3) He should advance to and touch his awarded base before a substitute is allowed to take his place, unless he is being replaced because of an injury or illness...see Customs and Usage.


Tim.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by BigUmp56

Dave:


This is all I find in the JEA on the matter.

Professional Interpretation: Though the batter is awarded first base without liability to be put out, he does incur responsibilities: (1) He must advance to and touch the awarded base or become liable to be declared out...see 4.09(b). (2) He becomes liable to be put out if he attempts to advance after missing the awarded base. (3) He should advance to and touch his awarded base before a substitute is allowed to take his place, unless he is being replaced because of an injury or illness...see Customs and Usage.


Tim.

Tim, this is under 7.08(c), Professional Interpretation, of the JEA:

A batter who is entitled to 1st base because of "four balls" being called may not overrun or overslide 1st base. This is an award which is administered while the ball is alive and in play. He is entitled to 1st base without liability to be put out...6.08(a). His liability to be put out resumes once he touches the base.