The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Baseball
Register FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Dec 24, 2006, 12:59am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: May 2004
Location: Greater Birmingham, Alabama
Posts: 611
Send a message via Yahoo to umpduck11
Quote:
Originally Posted by german ump
Once the base runner has touched first base he has "acquired" it or is there a new rule. I'm a high school umpire and we were tought that you actually have to touch the bag. tibear actually said the batter/runner "...ran over the bag but NEVER touched the bag". That would not give him possesion of first base. When he abandons the base he is called out.
Suppose the batter-runner is legging out a double. As he rounds first, he fails
to touch the bag, and continues on to second base. Would you do anything
other than wait for an appeal from the defense ? Running "through" the bag
at first, and failing to make contact would not be any different. If there is no
appeal, there is nothing to call, the batter-runner has acquired first base.
__________________
All generalizations are bad. - R.H. Grenier

Last edited by umpduck11; Sun Dec 24, 2006 at 10:45am.
Reply With Quote
  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 25, 2006, 11:36am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2000
Posts: 2,729
Mr. Hensley wrote:

"Wow......."

Dave I agree. What I should have written was:

"It appears, at first blush, that Mr. Roder has used the extensive research of Jim Evans AND Carl Childress to his advantage in his writings."

Even a liberal Texas Democrat couldn't find fault with that.
Reply With Quote
Reply

Bookmarks


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On



All times are GMT -5. The time now is 02:36pm.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1