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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 18, 2006, 07:11am
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Anyone realize how illogical some of these situations are It seems you guys added a few things into the equation. I interpreted it as 3 straight singles for that one. No where did it say the anyone had to be out. If they get three staight hits, (no outs), then thats the max. if they could get another hit, it would drive in a run.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 18, 2006, 08:52am
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fakeump wrote:

"Anyone realize how illogical some of these situations are It seems you guys added a few things into the equation. I interpreted it as 3 straight singles for that one. No where did it say the anyone had to be out. If they get three staight hits, (no outs), then thats the max. if they could get another hit, it would drive in a run."

This ties for the dumbest post EVER on the internet.

DG wrote:

"You obviously know section 10 exists."

I am confused. These answers are rules issues not scoring issues. DG, I have never read one word of Rule 10 and never will.

Regards,

Last edited by Tim C; Mon Dec 18, 2006 at 08:55am.
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Old Mon Dec 18, 2006, 09:51pm
DG DG is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tim C
DG wrote:

"You obviously know section 10 exists."

I am confused. These answers are rules issues not scoring issues. DG, I have never read one word of Rule 10 and never will.
10.05(e) indicates that a fair ball striking a runner is scored a hit. Is this covered somewhere else in the rules?.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 18, 2006, 10:33pm
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There is a way a pitcher could pitch a perfect game in mid-season with no changes in the batting averages of the opponents.

Leadoff guy takes ball 4, and the pitch gets away from F2 and rolls far away. BR makes it to 2B safely but is called out on appeal for missing 1B. The next 26 batters also take ball 4 and the same thing happens. So there would be 27 outs with no one reaching 1B safely, and because no one would be charged with an at bat, nobody's batting average would change.

The guys who have monkeys working at typewriters say that eventually such a game will be played.

In 1964, I saw the Baltimore Orioles score only 1 run against the Yankees on a single, a triple, and 3 more singles.
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Old Tue Dec 19, 2006, 10:30pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by greymule
There is a way a pitcher could pitch a perfect game in mid-season with no changes in the batting averages of the opponents.

Leadoff guy takes ball 4, and the pitch gets away from F2 and rolls far away. BR makes it to 2B safely but is called out on appeal for missing 1B. The next 26 batters also take ball 4 and the same thing happens. So there would be 27 outs with no one reaching 1B safely, and because no one would be charged with an at bat, nobody's batting average would change.
Would this still be scored as a perfect game?
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 19, 2006, 11:44pm
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And another question

Always before if a player dropped a foul ball it was NEVER called an error until the batter finsihed his at bat -- if he made an out there was no error -- NOW a days they credit the rror immediately -- so if the "Able" hots a foul pop and is clearly erred by F3 -- next 27 hitters retired . . . is that a perfect game?
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 20, 2006, 12:41am
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Rule 10 Questions

If I may tag on a question that I wanted to ask a scorekeeper.

Long ago, an error was never charged to a pitcher who didn't cleanly field a batted ball. However, F1 was awarded with an error if he proceeded to make a bad throw.

During the latest WS, a Tiger pitcher was charged with an error after he failed to cleanly field a bunted ball. I am certain the batter-runner would have preferred to have been credited with a base hit. Was this a correctly scored an "error" or the mistake of a certain well-known TV announcer?

The same situation happens frequently when a third baseman charges a good drag bunt and muffs the barehand pickup. It is most frequently scored a base hit because of the difficulty. Even if he makes the pick-up, he still has to throw the BR out.

Last edited by SAump; Wed Dec 20, 2006 at 12:47am.
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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 20, 2006, 01:41am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tim C
Always before if a player dropped a foul ball it was NEVER called an error until the batter finsihed his at bat -- if he made an out there was no error -- NOW a days they credit the rror immediately -- so if the "Able" hots a foul pop and is clearly erred by F3 -- next 27 hitters retired . . . is that a perfect game?
No, just a no-hitter. Perfect means perfect, as in no mistakes by the defense.
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 20, 2006, 01:08am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by waltjp
Would this still be scored as a perfect game?
Hey all,

It shouldn't be considered a perfect game since a perfect game does not allow for any walks.

LomUmp
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 20, 2006, 01:38am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by waltjp
Would this still be scored as a perfect game?
No, just a no-hitter.
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 18, 2006, 11:20pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DG
10.05(e) indicates that a fair ball striking a runner is scored a hit. Is this covered somewhere else in the rules?.
Key word in your statement, and the reason Tee has never read rule 10, is "scored."
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  #12 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 19, 2006, 07:51pm
DG DG is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dave Hensley
Key word in your statement, and the reason Tee has never read rule 10, is "scored."
Yes, my point exactly. To know that a batted ball striking a runner is "scored" a hit (the 6th hit in Tee's scenario)is indication there is some knowledge of rule 10, even if he didn't read it as he readily admits. My point was he has some knowledge of rule 10, even though he may not have acquired this knowledge by reading the rule.

It really doesn't hurt to know a little bit about rule 10, even if you don't need it to officiate a game. For those of us who have been coaches in our past and also occassionaly an official scorer at tournaments we must know rule 10. Granted, I haven't needed it much since umpiring only, but still seems useful.
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  #13 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 18, 2006, 12:52pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LLPA13UmpDan
Anyone realize how illogical some of these situations are It seems you guys added a few things into the equation. I interpreted it as 3 straight singles for that one. No where did it say the anyone had to be out. If they get three staight hits, (no outs), then thats the max. if they could get another hit, it would drive in a run.
Oh, my.

Try to follow along Mr. Little League, I'll type slowly.

The question asked for the MOST hits without scoring a run. You answered "three". Other posters have demonstrated how six hits could be allowed without scoring a run.

Now, then, regardless of outs, is three equal to or greater than six?

In the real world, the answer is "no." Therefore, "three" is an incorrect answer. Remember, we are looking for the MOST hits.

You bring to mind the old saying, "It is best to remain silent and be thought a fool than to open your mouth and remove all doubt."
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Old Mon Dec 18, 2006, 03:50pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by GarthB
Oh, my.

Try to follow along Mr. Little League, I'll type slowly.

The question asked for the MOST hits without scoring a run. You answered "three". Other posters have demonstrated how six hits could be allowed without scoring a run.

Now, then, regardless of outs, is three equal to or greater than six?

In the real world, the answer is "no." Therefore, "three" is an incorrect answer. Remember, we are looking for the MOST hits.

You bring to mind the old saying, "It is best to remain silent and be thought a fool than to open your mouth and remove all doubt."
Dear Garth and Tim C., You missed my point. This is exactly why umpires and coaches misinterpret rules. Now, Question was whats the most hits a team can have with out scoring a run- 3, bases would be loaded. Number of outs is irrlevent, so why add in that runners would have to get out. Completly added something in the question that is not there. Three is not an incorrect answer. 1+1+1=3<6 but however the answer 6 isnt 100% correct, but would be 100% correct if outs were part of the equation. Gee, i sound like a math teacher who is teaching mathematical problems.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
In addition to the other answers presented:

Bases loaded. All three runners abandon.
I love that answer. This must have happened in the game that Tim C. and Garth decided to coach in.

Last edited by LLPA13UmpDan; Mon Dec 18, 2006 at 03:53pm.
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  #15 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 18, 2006, 04:07pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LLPA13UmpDan
Dear Garth and Tim C., You missed my point. This is exactly why umpires and coaches misinterpret rules. Now, Question was whats the most hits a team can have with out scoring a run- 3, bases would be loaded. Number of outs is irrlevent, so why add in that runners would have to get out. Completly added something in the question that is not there. Three is not an incorrect answer. 1+1+1=3<6 but however the answer 6 isnt 100% correct, but would be 100% correct if outs were part of the equation. Gee, i sound like a math teacher who is teaching mathematical problems.

No, you sound like a student who doesn't understand the question.

The question asked for the MOST hits. It neither stipulated no outs or three outs, it asked for the most hits.

Can six hits be allowed without a run scoring? Yes.
Is six the most that can be allowed without scoring? Yes.
Is six more than three? Yes.

Six is the correct answer and always has been in the, at least, 30 years that this question has been around. And strangely, you are the only one I've ever met who doesn't understand the question or the answer. Even at this site, in this thread, everyone else understood the correct answer.

God, I feel badly for your teachers.
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Last edited by GarthB; Mon Dec 18, 2006 at 04:45pm.
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