what should i have called

[tibear]

Originally Posted by BigUmp56

If you're going to call a double play here you would need intent to interfere for the purposes of breaking up a double play on the part of the runner struck by the batted ball. The position of F5 is only relevant to whether or not you would have interference at all on the runner. If F5 was playing in front of the runner and the ball had passed immediately back of him before it hit the runner, the runner has not interfered even if the ball had hit him over fair territory.


Tim.

The situation I was thinking of: bases loaded and the third baseman is playing tight to the line and behind third base. In this situation, the third baseman could have picked up the ball touched third for the force of R2 and then thrown the batter out at first. There is no requirement to know intent in this case, if in the umpire's opinion, the defense would have made a double play had the runner not touched the ball then in addition to the baserunner the batter is also out.