Should 2 outs have been awarded ?

[SanDiegoSteve]

No. Not unless the runner willfully and deliberately interfered with the fielding of the ball. If it was unintentional in the umpire's judgment, all runners who are forced advance, and the batter-runner is awarded first base, and with bases loaded, a run would score.

Had it been willfull and deliberate interference, with the bases loaded, you would call the runner out for interference, and also the batter-runner. You would return all runners to the bases they occupied at the time of the pitch. In no event shall bases be run for this interference, nor any runs score. See Rule 7.09(g).

A more severe penalty is proscribed for a batter-runner willfully and deliberately interfering with the fielding of a batted ball. In this case, the runner closest to home is called out, as well as the batter-runner. See Rule 7.09(h).
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Edited to reflect that I have concluded that the first paragraph is wrong. No run should score, and R3 should be returned to 3rd due to the force being removed at the time R2 was hit with the ball.

[Edited by SanDiegoSteve on Mar 19th, 2006 at 02:11 AM]