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Fri Mar 17, 2006, 05:15pm
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Man in blue.
I never thought about this but I want to ask to be sure. In your unassisted double play attempt scenario, if F6 steps on 2nd and throws the ball into the dead ball area, and the B/R is already past 1st base, does the B/R get 3rd base because it is the second play by an infielder? Even though he only threw the ball once? I have not seen this but I want to be sure I make the right call if I do.
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Tony Smerk OHSAA Certified Class 1 Official Sheffield Lake, Ohio 
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