Can't understand this rule....please help

[ManInBlue]

Don't let "2nd play" by an infield confuse you, either. In this case, fielding the batted ball is not considered a play. If F6 fields a grounder, then steps on 2B for the force on R1 he's made play #1, the throw to 1B to complete the DP is play #2. If he fields the ball and throws to first, the throw to 1B is his first play.

Also, to add to the confusion, if BR AND all other runners have advanced one base before the first play by an infielder it is 2 bases from TOT. (As was the case mentioned by DG.)

Take your time and go through the rule slowly. Write it down. What's been said thus far has been dead on. Don't let it all confuse you, though. Just read it, and re-read it. Break it down like everyone has done here. Break it down so YOU can understand it all.

Best advice I've heard - Forget the 1+1 stuff. For the most part it's a two base award - from when is the catch. Exception would be a throw from F1 in contact with the rubber (one base).