Can't understand this rule....please help - Page 2

BigUmp56 · #16 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 17, 2006, 05:28pm

You've got it, Tony. If the BR was passed first base after the throw was released he gets third.

Tim.

ManInBlue · #17 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 17, 2006, 05:37pm

Quote:

Originally posted by officialtony
Man in blue.
I never thought about this but I want to ask to be sure. In your unassisted double play attempt scenario, if F6 steps on 2nd and throws the ball into the dead ball area, and the B/R is already past 1st base, does the B/R get 3rd base because it is the second play by an infielder?
Even though he only threw the ball once?
I have not seen this but I want to be sure I make the right call if I do.

Yes, he only threw the ball once, but stepping on the bag was his first play. Award is from TOT, so, as has already been stated (twice - my aplogies for the redundancy), if BR has passed first, then he gets 3B.

In this sitch BR gets two bases from the last one occupied at the time the ball is thrown, if he had not yet reached first (which in the real world is more likely) then he gets 2B. Actually works out the same in this sitch regardless of stepping on the bag or not, if BR has not reached 1B.

The thing about this is that it's not the number of throws, it's the number of plays, or attempted plays.

SanDiegoSteve · #18 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 17, 2006, 05:41pm

And then we must remember that bobbling the ball does not constitute an attempted play, so the fielder can boot the play, recover, and throw the ball away.....just one play!

officialtony · #19 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 17, 2006, 06:28pm

Thanks guys.
I am sure I would have booted this one thinking one throw/first play. Again, never having seen this play, I wanted to be sure I understand it.
I agree. Why is F6 throwing the ball if the runner is already past 1st? Unless he never looked and just threw thinking he would still get him before he realized the B/R was past already.

Good scenario.
Thanks.