RUNNER HIT BY BALL

PAUMP · #1 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 01:42pm

Just a high school coach here needing a ruling. Runner standing on third base. Th batter hits the ball and it in turn hits the runner standing on the base. Is the runner out or safe because he is on the base? Thanks

BigUmp56 · #2 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 01:48pm

Can you give us some more information? If the infield was playing way in for example, and the batted ball had passed immediately back of a fielder, and no other fielder had a play on the ball he would not have interfered.

If not he would be out for interference. The runner is provided sanctuary while in contact with a base only on an IFF if he gets hit with a batted ball.

Tim.

PAUMP · #3 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 01:54pm

The infield is playing back and the batter hits a line drive right down the line and hits the runner standing on the base. The third baseman has no play on the ball even if it doesn't hit him.

greymule · #4 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 01:55pm

And a good runner would know to be in foul territory, even if his foot was on the bag. Was the ball fair or foul?

gobama84 · #5 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 01:57pm

Also, it matters where the ball hit the runner. If the runner is standing in foul territory with one foot on 3B and the ball hits part of him in foul territory, it's a foul. If it hits him on the part of his body in fair territory, I would go back to the above explantion by BigUmp56.

Sorry GreyMule, you answered before I could finish.

PAUMP · #6 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 02:08pm

It would be a fair ball.

BigUmp56 · #7 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 02:11pm

Then the runner is out. It doesn't matter that you think F5 didn't have a play on the ball. The runner was hit before he even had an opportunity to try to make a play.

Tim.

PAUMP · #8 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 02:13pm

I understand the book says he is protected on IFF but what would the difference be if he was the only runner on base. I don't see a difference because he is not being forced to leave the bag. He also does not have to vacate the bag to avoid the fielder. Not arguing the point, just trying to get a better understanding. Thanks guys.

BigUmp56 · #9 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 02:20pm

First off, you can't have an IFF with only one runner on base.

Second, I would imagine that the spirit of the IFF rule, which is to protect the runners aready on base from a cheap DP, would come into play because the batter is automatically out if the ball is fair. In other words the defense was not deprived of an opportunity to make an out by the runner being hit.

Tim.

PAUMP · #10 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 02:43pm

Thanks guys. I understand with what you are saying and how you are ruling on this. I just don't totally agree with how or the reasoning behind the actual rule. Any other time the runner is not out unless he is put out off the base basically. There is no rule which specifically says that the runner is out. 8-3-8 says once he acquires the base it is his unless force off. 8-4-2k is the rule that you guys are using. It just seems logical that if he is one the base and not forced off then he cannot be put out. Just thinking out loud. Thanks for the input.

jxt127 · #11 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 03:19pm

7.08(f) in OBR says basically that any runner is out when touched by a batted ball before the ball touches or passes an infielder. The IFF provision is an exception to this rule.

SanDiegoSteve · #12 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 03:37pm

The FED equivalent to 7.08(f) is 8-4-2(k), with an exception for an IFF.

PJUMP · #13 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 03:54pm

As far as I know if the runner is in fair terroritory and gets it by the ball he is out even if he is on the base. Exception is the infield fly rule.

This is the same thing if there was a runner on 2nd base where fair or foul can't come into play. It a line drive goes up the middle and hits the runner on 2nd base he is out.

Mike

mcrowder · #14 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 04:41pm

Another exception is in the case where the ball has already passed the fielder (ie F5 was playing in).

PJUMP · #15 (**permalink**) Thu Mar 16, 2006, 06:56pm

So technically the person on 2nd base can't be called out if he is on the base and gets hit by a batted ball because once the pitcher pitches he becomes a fielder. The ball will have to past the pitcher - now a fielder to hit the person on 2nd base.

What is considered playing in - in front of the base, edge of the grass, few feet on the grass. If the runner on 3rd is smart he should have his foot on the side of the base and be in foul territory so he can't be called out - or MUCH LESS of a chance to be called out.

Mike