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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jun 23, 2001, 10:41am
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F4 dives backwards in his first attempt to field a grounder. In his attempt he bumps into r1 going to second and causes him to run into the ball. Assume incidental contact with no obstruction or interference. Is R1 still out since he was hit by the batted ball even if it was the bump by f4 that caused r1 to run into the ball?

Greg
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jun 23, 2001, 12:02pm
Michael Taylor
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I would say no but he may be out on for not avoiding a fielder making a play on a batted ball.
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Old Sat Jun 23, 2001, 05:53pm
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I'm having a hard time visualizing this play.

F4 must be playing in, and he dives back into the base line, which means the ball is hit sharply. In his dive, he bumps R1. R1 stumbles backwards and is hit by the ball.

I have a hard time imagining that the runner was hit by the ball after contacting the fielder and the fielder didn't have a legitimate play on the ball. So my leaning is to say interference on the runner.

If the contact was minimal, then the runner would be running behind the fielder and the fielder would then have dove past the ball. In that case, the ball having passed an infielder, live ball play on.

I think if there was any substantial contact with the fielder in the act of playing the ball, even though unintentional, you need to call interference on the runner.

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Old Sat Jun 23, 2001, 11:18pm
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Ask yourself this simple question. Did the runner take away the defenses chance to make an out?
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