Balk or not to balk

[ccbestul]

I have two different situations.
1. An inexperienced RHP was on the mound. Runner on 2nd. The pitcher in the set position rotated conterclockwise, he then proceede to rotate clockwise in one non-stop motion toward second base for a pickoff move. Is this a balk?

2. Different situation: Runners on first and third. The pitcher is in the set position taking signs from his catacher when the runner on first takes off. The pitcher comes set and pivots toward second and throws out the runner. Coach wanted balk because pitcher threw to unoccupied base. I did not call it.

[Tim C]

#1: Sorry I can't make sense of the description. It sounds like he "passed" the direction of home plate as he did his "big circle route." If that was the case it would a balk for not throwing to the batter.

#2: Is a little more difficult ONLY in the respect that OBR and FED are slightly different.

As you have descibed, *the runner on first takes off", would mean that under both rules there is an attempted advance. If there is an intended advance a pitcher can throw to what appears to be an unoccupied base for the purpose of putting out the breaking runner.

Now if R1 stops and retreats to first then we COULD possibly have the difference in the two rules.

[Bfair]

Originally posted by Tim C
#1: Now if R1 stops and retreats to first then we COULD possibly have the difference in the two rules.

Agreed, T, but a difference exists ONLY if the original attempt of R1 was judged to be a bluff. That is, if in the umpire's judgement R1 was actually advancing, and the throw by F1 to 2nd actually caught the runner or drove him back, where he may have returned successfully, then the move would still be legal as F1 was still "attempting to make a play". Correct?


Throwing to an occupied base gets significant dialogue in the forums, yet, in my 20+ years of umpiring I have only once seen a pitcher throw to an unoccupied base when IT WAS NOT an attempt to make a play on an advancing runner. That one time being an F1 who wheeled and threw to first after the runner had already stolen 2nd a couple pitches earlier. He merely had a brain fart.

Every other time I have seen a pitcher throw to an unoccupied base from the rubber, it has been because the runner had initiated a legitimate attempt to advance.

Just my opinion,

Freix

[Tim C]

Steve:

That is the situation I was intimating.

And we recognize that the difference is just the judgement of when a runner has comitted to advance.

Tee