Quote:
Originally posted by Tim C
#1: Now if R1 stops and retreats to first then we COULD possibly have the difference in the two rules.
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Agreed, T, but a difference exists ONLY if the original attempt of R1 was judged to be a bluff. That is, if in the umpire's judgement R1 was actually advancing, and the throw by F1 to 2nd actually caught the runner or drove him back, where he may have returned successfully, then the move would still be legal as F1 was still "attempting to make a play". Correct?
Throwing to an occupied base gets significant dialogue in the forums, yet, in my 20+ years of umpiring I have only once seen a pitcher throw to an unoccupied base when IT WAS NOT an attempt to make a play on an advancing runner. That one time being an F1 who wheeled and threw to first after the runner had already stolen 2nd a couple pitches earlier. He merely had a brain fart.
Every other time I have seen a pitcher throw to an unoccupied base from the rubber, it has been because the runner had initiated a legitimate attempt to advance.
Just my opinion,
Freix