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In Papa C's article today he describes a play under Fed rules with runners on 2nd and 3rd, 1 out, and the batter bunts. The pitcher's throw home retires R3, and F2's throw to first hits the batter outside the running lane. His choices for ruling on the play were a) dead ball, inning over; b) dead ball, R2 returns to 2nd; c) ignore batter interference due to intervening play; or d) live ball, play stands, B1 on 1st and R2 to 3rd with 2 outs.
His analysis of the play comes down to the fact that the umpire has to know that an intervening play is not relevant to this play (because we are not using OBR), and that the batter-runner interfered by running outside of the lane. He said the correct answer was "D". Am I missing something? Why isn't the batter out, and the ball dead, with runners returning? (edited to insert that Papa C said "D" was correct - thanks ManinBlue) [Edited by Mike Walsh on Dec 5th, 2005 at 07:07 PM] |
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I would have said A). Is that what he's called. I missing something in the interpretation of the answer.
I do know that in FED, outs made during/prior to dead ball stand, then the other runners would return to their respective bases. In this case, though, it's the second play by the infielder. If we don't have BR out, end of inning - we have BR at first and R2 possibly at third (TOT). I still say we have the DP - R3 and BR on INT for being out of the lane. I can't imagine any other way to play it. |
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The play in the article has the runner running with his left foot on the line, not out of the lane. The runner was thus in the lane so there is no interference.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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Post the exact article and let's try this again. [/B][/QUOTE] It's on the paid side. Several have posted that the play was that the runner was on the line. I'd suggest that you accept that.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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Okay, I'll take a shot at it.
If the BR's foot is on the foul line, the answer is D. If the BR's feet are both outside the running lane, the answer would be A. Does anyone disagree?
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Matthew 15:14, 1 Corinthians 1:23-25 |
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If both feet are on the line or in the lane, the answer is D. If either foot is outside the lane, the answer wouls be A. |
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When it was stated that his left foot was on the line, I took it to mean the foul line. This would place his right foot inside the running lane. Since the lines are part of the lane, he is inside the running lane, and the answer is D. If, however, he meant that the left foot was on the outside line defining the lane, then he is not in the lane, making the answer A.
I think he meant the foul line, but I've been wrong before (duh!) Edited to switch A and D. (typo) [Edited by SanDiegoSteve on Dec 6th, 2005 at 03:58 PM]
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Matthew 15:14, 1 Corinthians 1:23-25 |
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I commented as to Mike Walsh' original post. 'Nuff said. By the way, are you one of the "others"? [/B][/QUOTE] I know your original response was to Mike's post. My response to you was, however to the post where you said: Post the exact article and let's try this again. Luke, Garth and I all posted that we know that the original was "on the line". Even if we did cut and paste, how would you know we didn't alter it in the process? If you think we're all stretching the truth, the only alternative is to go and read it on the paid side.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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The point is that *both* feet don't need to be outside the lane -- if even one foot is outside the lane, then the runner is outside the lane a liable to be called for interference. |
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Matthew 15:14, 1 Corinthians 1:23-25 |
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