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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu May 10, 2001, 01:14pm
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Question

The following two incidents happened in the same high school game with Fed rules.

Play 1: Two strikes on the batter. The runner is going from third and the batter squares to bunt. The pitch is moving in on the batter and he tries to get out of the way while he remains squared around for the bunt. The ball hits his bat and goes foul. The offensive coach argues that the batter should not be out because he was no longer attempting to bunt. He says it should simply be a foul ball.

Play 2: The batter swings and misses on a hit and run. The runner is thrown out at second base. The pitch was only strike two, but the batter walks to the dugout as if he had struck out. The next batter steps in and bats. The offensive coach questions the play after the inning and is told by the umpire that the batter gave himself up when he entered the dugout and a pitch was thrown to the next batter.

How would you handle these two plays?

Harmbu
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Old Thu May 10, 2001, 01:26pm
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My Two Cents

Play 1 - Guess I would have to see the batter attempt to get out of the way. Did he pull the bat back and then ball hit the bat (foul ball , no out) or did he make any attempt to bunt and step backward with the ball hitting the bat ( foul ball, strike three, batter out).

Play 2 - Since 20 seconds has elapsed since the last pitch, strike three batter is out.

[Edited by Mike M on May 11th, 2001 at 11:38 AM]
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Old Fri May 11, 2001, 12:55pm
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Cool Wow! Made up Rool-of-the-Week Award

Congrats "M"! Where in the world did you come up with this gem??

Quote:
Originally posted by Mike M
Play 2 - Since 20 seconds has elapsed since the last pitch, strike three batter is out.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Fri May 11, 2001, 01:03pm
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Talking

Two neat scenarios. Fed experts, feel free to skewer me if I am off on these.

#1. If I judge he wasn't REALLY trying to BUNT.. then it's just a foul ball. The "Ball accidently hits the bat" situation is odd in that we call a strike on a batter who never actually ATTEMPTS to strike at the ball.

#2. I gotta wonder... what was PU (Doofus?) doing? Did he not notice that a NEW batter was coming into the box although the OLD batter had not finished his time at bat? Wouldn't a simple.. "Hey, 28! You are still up, only 2 strikes!" have worked?

Assume that #29 was the new batter though, same height, weight, helmet, shoes. Who can tell these kids apart? So ump really DID NOT KNOW it was the next batter. I would say you have a Batting Out of Order sitch. Old batter is proper batter, New batter is improper, but would have to be appealed.

Mike B
Keeper of the EWS Flame



Quote:
Originally posted by harmbu
The following two incidents happened in the same high school game with Fed rules.

Play 1: Two strikes on the batter. The runner is going from third and the batter squares to bunt. The pitch is moving in on the batter and he tries to get out of the way while he remains squared around for the bunt. The ball hits his bat and goes foul. The offensive coach argues that the batter should not be out because he was no longer attempting to bunt. He says it should simply be a foul ball.

Play 2: The batter swings and misses on a hit and run. The runner is thrown out at second base. The pitch was only strike two, but the batter walks to the dugout as if he had struck out. The next batter steps in and bats. The offensive coach questions the play after the inning and is told by the umpire that the batter gave himself up when he entered the dugout and a pitch was thrown to the next batter.

How would you handle these two plays?

Harmbu
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Old Fri May 11, 2001, 01:23pm
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Made Up Rule

Not to justify my "made-up" rule but in FED ball, the batter is not allowed to leave the batter box (7-3-1). So I reasoned that since the batter left the batter box and has not returned I would invoke the associated penalty which is a strike or in this case Strike Three.
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Old Sat May 12, 2001, 10:19am
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Quote:
Originally posted by harmbu
Play 2: The batter swings and misses on a hit and run. The runner is thrown out at second base. The pitch was only strike two, but the batter walks to the dugout as if he had struck out. The next batter steps in and bats. The offensive coach questions the play after the inning and is told by the umpire that the batter gave himself up when he entered the dugout and a pitch was thrown to the next batter.
I would have given this batter the benfit of the doubt. Call time as he's walking away and inform him that there are only two strikes on him. After all, umpires are not always perfect with the count either.
__________________
Just my opinion,

Hayes
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Old Mon May 14, 2001, 10:16am
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On Second Thought

Hayes,
I like your solution. You did remind of a time when I was working a one man JV game, R1 and R2, 0-1 count on batter, curveball for a strike, R2 stealing, I bust out to get some angle on steal at third, call runner safe. Walking back to the plate, I look at indicator and see 1-1, and click another strike to make 1-2. The third base coach asks for the count, and I signal 1-2 and he gives a semi-quizzical look but does not question it. Then coach starts his signs. Since there were 2 outs, he had R1 try to steal and get in a run down so R3 could score, based on my wrong balls/strikes count. End result, R1 caught before R3 scored and one unhappy coach.
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