Two neat scenarios. Fed experts, feel free to skewer me if I am off on these.
#1. If I judge he wasn't REALLY trying to BUNT.. then it's just a foul ball. The "Ball accidently hits the bat" situation is odd in that we call a strike on a batter who never actually ATTEMPTS to strike at the ball.
#2. I gotta wonder... what was PU (Doofus?) doing? Did he not notice that a NEW batter was coming into the box although the OLD batter had not finished his time at bat? Wouldn't a simple.. "Hey, 28! You are still up, only 2 strikes!" have worked?
Assume that #29 was the new batter though, same height, weight, helmet, shoes. Who can tell these kids apart? So ump really DID NOT KNOW it was the next batter. I would say you have a Batting Out of Order sitch. Old batter is proper batter, New batter is improper, but would have to be appealed.
Mike B
Keeper of the EWS Flame
Quote:
Originally posted by harmbu
The following two incidents happened in the same high school game with Fed rules.
Play 1: Two strikes on the batter. The runner is going from third and the batter squares to bunt. The pitch is moving in on the batter and he tries to get out of the way while he remains squared around for the bunt. The ball hits his bat and goes foul. The offensive coach argues that the batter should not be out because he was no longer attempting to bunt. He says it should simply be a foul ball.
Play 2: The batter swings and misses on a hit and run. The runner is thrown out at second base. The pitch was only strike two, but the batter walks to the dugout as if he had struck out. The next batter steps in and bats. The offensive coach questions the play after the inning and is told by the umpire that the batter gave himself up when he entered the dugout and a pitch was thrown to the next batter.
How would you handle these two plays?
Harmbu
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