A Doozy of a Rule Question

[UMP25]

Originally posted by BigUmp56
No matter how you slice it the illegal action of the improper batter nullifies the run.

Tim.

But does it, Tim? As we know, a runner who advances due to a balk, wild pitch/pass ball, or who steals a base while an improper batter is at bat can remain on his advance base. So, wouldn't this permit R3 to score?

On the other hand, if we employ Jim Evans's "common sense and fair play" philosophy, one might legitimately argue that R3 shouldn't score because (a) the batter's failure to reach first was the final out, (b) R3 advanced during an improper batter's dropped third strike.

Now, despite this, one might say, yeah, so? "A" or "B" might be good, but even if the proper batter was at the plate, R3 would score on the dropped third strike.

This one alone is enough to give people a serious migraine. I think my head hurts already.