Force or Time Play??

[DG]

Originally posted by Dave Davies
R3, 2 out, R3 stealing on a 3-2 pitch.

R3 scores before ball is swung on and missed for strike 3.

My initial response was 4.09a, run can't score. But, that rule refers specifically to Batter Runner. Other references point to strike 3 NOT caught.

My thought now is that it becomes a Time Play, run scores. I have all the reference manuals and none of them say that the run doesn't score.

You folks wanna straighten me out here? I know that if I go drink a couple of beers, this dilemma will become quite clear.

Dave
******

There cannot be a run if a runner has touched (or passed) home base, but there is related action wherein the third out is the batter-runner before touching (or passing) first base, or the batter-runner on an appeal for missing first, or when his batted ball is caught.

Based on this I would say a batter who struck out for the third out has not reached first base before the runner scored.

And R3 is either fearless, mis-directed, or clueless. I vote for misdirected by a stupid clueless coach.