Pretty sure I blew this

[U_of_I_Blue]

Situation:
1 out, R2.

Pitcher engages the rubber working from the stretch. This pitcher has a fairly slow move from the stretch to the set position. R2 gets a large preliminary lead. As soon as pitcher starts to come set, runner breaks for third. F1 does not finish coming set (hands were still a few inches apart and there had been no discernable stop) and throws to to third and retires the runner. I was so shocked at seeing this (first time i've ever seen a runner try to steal a base before the pitcher has even come set), that I didn't balk it. The longer I had to think about this though (it was last night), the more I think I should have balked him because the rules say that once he begins to come set, he must come to the set position without interruption and in one continuous motion. So, I'm pretty sure I kicked not calling this one. Am I right?

-Josh

[UmpJM]

U of I Blue,

Hard to say for sure without having seen it, but it sounds to me from your description that this is NOT a balk, hence your "no call" was correct.

While a pitcher is required to complete his set (i.e. hands together, full stop) prior to delivering a pitch, he is not required to do so prior to throwing a pick-off. As long as the move was continuous, he is fine.

Reference:

J/R

It is a balk if a pitcher

1. hesitates in or interrupts his motion to join hands, pitch throw, or disengage. [8.01b][NFHS 6-1-1]

However, it is not a balk if a pitcher who has begun his motion to join hands shifts in a fluid and continuous motion to throw or disengage the rubber. ...

JM

[David B]

Originally posted by U_of_I_Blue
Situation:
1 out, R2.

Pitcher engages the rubber working from the stretch. This pitcher has a fairly slow move from the stretch to the set position. R2 gets a large preliminary lead. As soon as pitcher starts to come set, runner breaks for third. F1 does not finish coming set (hands were still a few inches apart and there had been no discernable stop) and throws to to third and retires the runner. I was so shocked at seeing this (first time i've ever seen a runner try to steal a base before the pitcher has even come set), that I didn't balk it. The longer I had to think about this though (it was last night), the more I think I should have balked him because the rules say that once he begins to come set, he must come to the set position without interruption and in one continuous motion. So, I'm pretty sure I kicked not calling this one. Am I right?

-Josh

Don't kick too hard, you actually had the right instincts and made the correct call.

The F1 only has to come set to deliver a pitch to the batter.

He can at any time in the set position make a move to a base in hopes of retiring a runner.

In this situation, since the runner had broke for 3B, F1 made a smart play since he can throw to an unoccupied base when the runner is advancing to that base.

By chance when you were thinking last night, did you get your rule book out and look for the pertinent parts?

That's the best way to learn.

Thanks
David

[Tim C]

What David said.

[U_of_I_Blue]

Thanks guys. I did look at the rule book but as I so often do, forget that if I'm looking for a rule, I need to read the whole section and not just the part I think would apply. I only looked at this section of 8.01:

"Preparatory to coming to a set position, the pitcher shall have one hand on his side; from this position he shall go to his set position as defined in Rule 8.01 (b) without interruption and in one continuous motion. "

But just as you said, just a few sentences above, it says the pitcher shall come to the set position before delivering the ball to the batter. Nowhere does it say he has to come set before playing on a runner.

That's one of my faults is not reading quite thoroughly enough. Need to work on that. Thanks for the replies.

-Josh