Throw to First

[Dave Hensley]

Originally posted by largeone59
I'm just curious as to why this would not apply to any other base. I don't see the difference between the play listed there and if there was an R2, F1 throws to F6 who is just standing at his normal position.

I know your ruling is correct, DG. I'm just curious what rule he's breaking and why there's a difference at the other bases.

First base is the only base the pitcher HAS to throw to - at 2B and 3B he can step and feint without a throw.

Jim Evans explains the rationale in his Baseball Rules Annotated:

The purpose of this rule is to allow a runner to get a practical lead. If feints were allowed, pitchers could hold runners much closer at 1st base, and the offense would be stifled. The main purpose of the Balk Rule is to encourage offense, not to stifle it.