A coach asked me about a situation today, and I was unable to remember if this is a rules difference and what the different bodies say about it.

R1 with F3 standing away from the bag (10'-15'). If the pitcher throws, can he throw directly to F3, or does he have to throw to the bag? Does it matter if F3 is moving towards the base? What about at second or third base? NF and OBR would be appreciated so I can finally get them straight in my head.

If F1 throws to F3 he better be making a move towards 1B to make a play on R1. F1 does not have to throw directly to 1B, he could throw to F3 who is breaking towards 1B to make a play. It's a balk to throw to a flat footed F3, away from the base. None of this applies to any other base. No rules differences.

I'm just curious as to why this would not apply to any other base. I don't see the difference between the play listed there and if there was an R2, F1 throws to F6 who is just standing at his normal position.

I know your ruling is correct, DG. I'm just curious what rule he's breaking and why there's a difference at the other bases.

Maybe for the same reason that you are allowed to feint to 2b or 3b but not 1b. When you figure that out let me know.

First base is the only base the pitcher HAS to throw to - at 2B and 3B he can step and feint without a throw.

Jim Evans explains the rationale in his <u>Baseball Rules Annotated</u>:

<font color=blue>The purpose of this rule is to allow a runner to get a practical lead. If feints were allowed, pitchers could hold runners much closer at 1st base, and the offense would be stifled. The main purpose of the Balk Rule is to encourage offense, not to stifle it.</font>