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Fri Jun 03, 2005, 10:49am
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OK,
Keeping the answer simple: John has nailed your answer coach.
More interestingly J/R has a published ruling dealing with this specific play that makes it "possible" to score a run when R1 never legally attains second base. I think that referencing here should be considered a "special consideration" as J/R's ruling is controversial and may not be universally accepted. 
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