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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu May 12, 2005, 10:54pm
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R1 stealing on the pitch. The pitch is low and the right handed batter lunges at it and misses badly. His swing carries his back (right) foot to the outside edge of home plate so he's practically straddling the plate. He makes contact with the catcher throwing to 2nd. R1 is safe at 2nd.


Is this an example of what we call "weak" interference in OBR where we should just send the runner back to first?


Would the ruling on this play be different in FED than in OBR?
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Old Thu May 12, 2005, 11:11pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by largeone59
R1 stealing on the pitch. The pitch is low and the right handed batter lunges at it and misses badly. His swing carries his back (right) foot to the outside edge of home plate so he's practically straddling the plate. He makes contact with the catcher throwing to 2nd. R1 is safe at 2nd.


Is this an example of what we call "weak" interference in OBR where we should just send the runner back to first?


Would the ruling on this play be different in FED than in OBR?
No. This is interference and the batter is out, runner returned. In any code.
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Old Fri May 13, 2005, 01:40am
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Weak interference is when the batter swings, stays in his box but hits the catcher with the bat on his backswing. It is listed/described under the exception to batter interfernce in OBR. This type of interference is still an out in FED.
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Old Fri May 13, 2005, 09:02am
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largeone,
this is a textbook example of batter interference. No brainer, call batter out if runner is not successfully thrown out at 2B. If not, runner back to first.
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Old Sat May 14, 2005, 10:41pm
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What if no runner?

If there was no runner, wouldn't the batter also be called out for stepping out of the batters box... or does that have to be intentional?
SD
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Old Sat May 14, 2005, 10:49pm
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Saltydog,

The batter is out for "illegal action" when he intentionally contacts the ball with his bat while at least one foot is entirely out of the batter's box and on the ground - not the catcher.

Of course, now that you bring this up...

Would the catcher still be liable (assume no runners) for CI (Obstruction in FED) if he interfered with the batter's swing while the batter had a foot on the ground entirely ouside of the batter's box ?

I don't know.

JM
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Old Sat May 14, 2005, 11:31pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by CoachJM
Saltydog,

The batter is out for "illegal action" when he intentionally contacts the ball with his bat while at least one foot is entirely out of the batter's box and on the ground - not the catcher.

Of course, now that you bring this up...

Would the catcher still be liable (assume no runners) for CI (Obstruction in FED) if he interfered with the batter's swing while the batter had a foot on the ground entirely ouside of the batter's box ?

I don't know.

JM
If there is catcher interference, it happened before the batter's bat touched the ball.
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Old Sun May 15, 2005, 03:01pm
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woof

Coach,
Got it! Somehow I missed the part where the kid missed the ball then fell/stradled the plate. However, if he had contacted the ball, then lost his footing and stepped out... that would be just like any other hit ball correct? ie. He wouldn't be called out.
SD
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Old Sun May 15, 2005, 07:50pm
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Right. Your foot has to be on the GROUND outside the box when you hit the ball to be called out. You can have it in the air outside the box, then hit the ball, then have your foot land outside the box, and be ok.
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