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largeone59 Thu May 12, 2005 10:54pm

R1 stealing on the pitch. The pitch is low and the right handed batter lunges at it and misses badly. His swing carries his back (right) foot to the outside edge of home plate so he's practically straddling the plate. He makes contact with the catcher throwing to 2nd. R1 is safe at 2nd.


Is this an example of what we call "weak" interference in OBR where we should just send the runner back to first?


Would the ruling on this play be different in FED than in OBR?

Rich Thu May 12, 2005 11:11pm

Quote:

Originally posted by largeone59
R1 stealing on the pitch. The pitch is low and the right handed batter lunges at it and misses badly. His swing carries his back (right) foot to the outside edge of home plate so he's practically straddling the plate. He makes contact with the catcher throwing to 2nd. R1 is safe at 2nd.


Is this an example of what we call "weak" interference in OBR where we should just send the runner back to first?


Would the ruling on this play be different in FED than in OBR?

No. This is interference and the batter is out, runner returned. In any code.

cowbyfan1 Fri May 13, 2005 01:40am

Weak interference is when the batter swings, stays in his box but hits the catcher with the bat on his backswing. It is listed/described under the exception to batter interfernce in OBR. This type of interference is still an out in FED.

scyguy Fri May 13, 2005 09:02am

largeone,
this is a textbook example of batter interference. No brainer, call batter out if runner is not successfully thrown out at 2B. If not, runner back to first.

Saltydog Sat May 14, 2005 10:41pm

What if no runner?
 
If there was no runner, wouldn't the batter also be called out for stepping out of the batters box... or does that have to be intentional?
SD

UmpJM Sat May 14, 2005 10:49pm

Saltydog,

The batter is out for "illegal action" when he intentionally contacts the <b>ball</b> with his bat while at least one foot is entirely out of the batter's box and on the ground - not the <b>catcher</b>.

Of course, now that you bring this up...

Would the catcher still be liable (assume no runners) for CI (Obstruction in FED) if he interfered with the batter's swing while the batter had a foot on the ground entirely ouside of the batter's box ?

I don't know.

JM

DG Sat May 14, 2005 11:31pm

Quote:

Originally posted by CoachJM
Saltydog,

The batter is out for "illegal action" when he intentionally contacts the <b>ball</b> with his bat while at least one foot is entirely out of the batter's box and on the ground - not the <b>catcher</b>.

Of course, now that you bring this up...

Would the catcher still be liable (assume no runners) for CI (Obstruction in FED) if he interfered with the batter's swing while the batter had a foot on the ground entirely ouside of the batter's box ?

I don't know.

JM

If there is catcher interference, it happened before the batter's bat touched the ball.

Saltydog Sun May 15, 2005 03:01pm

woof
 
Coach,
Got it! Somehow I missed the part where the kid missed the ball then fell/stradled the plate. However, if he had contacted the ball, then lost his footing and stepped out... that would be just like any other hit ball correct? ie. He wouldn't be called out.
SD

largeone59 Sun May 15, 2005 07:50pm

Right. Your foot has to be on the GROUND outside the box when you hit the ball to be called out. You can have it in the air outside the box, then hit the ball, then have your foot land outside the box, and be ok.


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