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A bit of a spin on the bunt vs. hit question. Bottom of last inning, less than two outs. Winning run on third. Batter bunts the ball on a suicide squeeze - the winning run scores and no play is made on the batter-runner. (The game ended as soon as the runner touched home). Score this a sac bunt or a hit?
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Isn't the game over when the runner touches first or R3 scores, whichever comes second if there is no play on either?
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Doesn't matter in this case - if BR had been out it would have only been the second out.
Score a sac UNLESS you determine that BR would have beaten a play (had ther been one). |
give 'em a hit...?
It was a good bunt - it would have taken a very good play to get the runner at first (possibly extraordinary effort). I'm leaning towards scoring it as a hit. Thanks, Rich.
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