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FED
R1 and R3 with No outs. Ground ball to SS who flips to 2nd baseman. R1 overslides into fielder who is in the process of throwing the ball wildly to home. I call interference and call R1 and BR out and put r3 back on third.
It is pretty plain in the rulebook (8-4-b Penalty)that we did the right thing but I've been asked by a fellow ump why I did not call R1 out and R3 out. I know there are situations where you have intentional interference with a DP and you can call out the runner closest to home but I find nothing to substantiate calling R3 out in the above situation.
Can anybody shed any further light on this?
Thanks
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Fri Mar 11, 2005, 02:09pm
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