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FED
R1 and R3 with No outs. Ground ball to SS who flips to 2nd baseman. R1 overslides into fielder who is in the process of throwing the ball wildly to home. I call interference and call R1 and BR out and put r3 back on third. It is pretty plain in the rulebook (8-4-b Penalty)that we did the right thing but I've been asked by a fellow ump why I did not call R1 out and R3 out. I know there are situations where you have intentional interference with a DP and you can call out the runner closest to home but I find nothing to substantiate calling R3 out in the above situation. Can anybody shed any further light on this? Thanks |
8-4-2g If, in the judgment of the umpire, a runner including the batter-runner interferes in any way and prevents a double play anywhere, two shall be declared out (the runner who interfered and the other runner involved). If a retired runner interferes, and in the judgment of the umpire, another runner could have been put out, the umpire shall declare that runner out.
Wasn't the throw to home? Wouldn't this be the "runner that could have been put out"? |
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Doesn't matter if the ball is thrown or not. |
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Just curious, where was the initial contact?
It was a really ugly kinda rolling slide. Contact was on top of base or maybe slightly behind base. |
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you are right again, 8-4-2b deals directly with the FPSR. 8-4-2g deals with intentionally interfering with a throw or a thrown ball, but not during the act of sliding. Thanks
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I had one today where R1 slid in and when he hit the bag he rolled up onto his knees and made contact with f4 on the bag. Was pretty ugly but nothing that warrented an illegal slide or interference. |
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