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Old Fri Mar 11, 2005, 08:24pm
DG DG is offline
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Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: North Carolina
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Quote:
Originally posted by Bill Boos
FED
R1 and R3 with No outs. Ground ball to SS who flips to 2nd baseman. R1 overslides into fielder who is in the process of throwing the ball wildly to home. I call interference and call R1 and BR out and put r3 back on third.

It is pretty plain in the rulebook (8-4-b Penalty)that we did the right thing but I've been asked by a fellow ump why I did not call R1 out and R3 out. I know there are situations where you have intentional interference with a DP and you can call out the runner closest to home but I find nothing to substantiate calling R3 out in the above situation.

Can anybody shed any further light on this?

Thanks
I have never seen a 6-4-2 double play and quite frankly I think F4 lost his mind in the middle of this play. If the runner on 3B was that important the SS would throw directly home. However, we do have a FPSR violation, 2 outs, and the runner on 3B returns.
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