Force Play slide rule

[Bill Boos]

FED
R1 and R3 with No outs. Ground ball to SS who flips to 2nd baseman. R1 overslides into fielder who is in the process of throwing the ball wildly to home. I call interference and call R1 and BR out and put r3 back on third.

It is pretty plain in the rulebook (8-4-b Penalty)that we did the right thing but I've been asked by a fellow ump why I did not call R1 out and R3 out. I know there are situations where you have intentional interference with a DP and you can call out the runner closest to home but I find nothing to substantiate calling R3 out in the above situation.

Can anybody shed any further light on this?

Thanks

[scyguy]

8-4-2g If, in the judgment of the umpire, a runner including the batter-runner interferes in any way and prevents a double play anywhere, two shall be declared out (the runner who interfered and the other runner involved). If a retired runner interferes, and in the judgment of the umpire, another runner could have been put out, the umpire shall declare that runner out.

Wasn't the throw to home? Wouldn't this be the "runner that could have been put out"?

[gordon30307]

Originally posted by Bill Boos
FED
R1 and R3 with No outs. Ground ball to SS who flips to 2nd baseman. R1 overslides into fielder who is in the process of throwing the ball wildly to home. I call interference and call R1 and BR out and put r3 back on third.

It is pretty plain in the rulebook (8-4-b Penalty)that we did the right thing but I've been asked by a fellow ump why I did not call R1 out and R3 out. I know there are situations where you have intentional interference with a DP and you can call out the runner closest to home but I find nothing to substantiate calling R3 out in the above situation.

Can anybody shed any further light on this?

Thanks

I've never seen that play. Call R1 and BR out double play with R2 returned to third. Fotunately the penalty for this is spelled out. On a forced play slide the runner is declared out for interference as well as the batter runner. Runners return to the base at T. O. P.

Doesn't matter if the ball is thrown or not.

[Rich]

Originally posted by Bill Boos
FED
R1 and R3 with No outs. Ground ball to SS who flips to 2nd baseman. R1 overslides into fielder who is in the process of throwing the ball wildly to home. I call interference and call R1 and BR out and put r3 back on third.

It is pretty plain in the rulebook (8-4-b Penalty)that we did the right thing but I've been asked by a fellow ump why I did not call R1 out and R3 out. I know there are situations where you have intentional interference with a DP and you can call out the runner closest to home but I find nothing to substantiate calling R3 out in the above situation.

Can anybody shed any further light on this?

Thanks

Just curious, where was the initial contact?

[Bill Boos]

Just curious, where was the initial contact?

It was a really ugly kinda rolling slide. Contact was on top of base or maybe slightly behind base.

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by scyguy
8-4-2g

The rule that applies is 8-4-2b, not 8-4-2g

[ozzy6900]

Originally posted by Bill Boos
Just curious, where was the initial contact?

It was a really ugly kinda rolling slide. Contact was on top of base or maybe slightly behind base.

Rolling slide in FED? That's an out right there. Now if it took out the DP, that's two out.

[scyguy]

you are right again, 8-4-2b deals directly with the FPSR. 8-4-2g deals with intentionally interfering with a throw or a thrown ball, but not during the act of sliding. Thanks

[DG]

Originally posted by Bill Boos
FED
R1 and R3 with No outs. Ground ball to SS who flips to 2nd baseman. R1 overslides into fielder who is in the process of throwing the ball wildly to home. I call interference and call R1 and BR out and put r3 back on third.

It is pretty plain in the rulebook (8-4-b Penalty)that we did the right thing but I've been asked by a fellow ump why I did not call R1 out and R3 out. I know there are situations where you have intentional interference with a DP and you can call out the runner closest to home but I find nothing to substantiate calling R3 out in the above situation.

Can anybody shed any further light on this?

Thanks

I have never seen a 6-4-2 double play and quite frankly I think F4 lost his mind in the middle of this play. If the runner on 3B was that important the SS would throw directly home. However, we do have a FPSR violation, 2 outs, and the runner on 3B returns.

[Rich]

Originally posted by ozzy6900

Rolling slide in FED? That's an out right there. Now if it took out the DP, that's two out.

Ugly kinda rolling isn't necessarily a rolling or an illegal slide. And if the initial contact was on top of the base, it isn't even a FPSR violation.

[cowbyfan1]

Originally posted by Rich Fronheiser

Ugly kinda rolling isn't necessarily a rolling or an illegal slide. And if the initial contact was on top of the base, it isn't even a FPSR violation.

I'm with Rich on this one. Would need to see the slide to determine if it was warrented as an illegal slide as "really ugly kinda rolling" is hard to visualize.

I had one today where R1 slid in and when he hit the bag he rolled up onto his knees and made contact with f4 on the bag. Was pretty ugly but nothing that warrented an illegal slide or interference.

[GarthB]

Originally posted by Bill Boos
Just curious, where was the initial contact?

It was a really ugly kinda rolling slide. Contact was on top of base or maybe slightly behind base.

If contact was made on top of the base, there is no FPSR violation. A ruling by FED based on a no-call in that exact scenario by our local FED clinician last year re-confirmed that principle.