Accidental appeal and mechanics question.

[cbfoulds]

Originally posted by Gmoore
A force out is defined as:

A force out is a putout during which a runner who is being forced to advance is tagged out or is put out by a fielder who holds the ball while touching the base toward which the forced runner is advancing.

reading that how can a runner going to first not be a force out?

.... Speaking NFHS .....

OK, I'm gonna do this real slow:

2-29-3:A force play is a play in which a runner ...

The batter is not a runner until he reaches 1st base. Once he stops being the batter, he becomes the batter-runner, a special critter.

...loses his right to occupy the base he occupies ...

the batter has no "right to occupy" home; and, indeed, never "occupies" home at all.

...and is forced to advance because the batter becomes a batter runner.

Now, how can the Batter be "forced to advance because the batter becomes a batter-runner"? Kind of a tautology, yes?
Batter is forced .. because he's forced .. by his becoming a BR.

AIN'T NO FORCE ON BR @ 1st.

Not that it makes a bit of difference, since in all but the rareset TWP, you can pretend you don't know this and officiate the play like it WAS a "force". You can even SAY that BR is forced at 1st, and only umpires will know that you are being ignorant; and most of them won't care. Of course, when the TWP actually happens in front of you, you'll blow the ruling; but, again, only umpires will know.

Now, PLEASE, can we stop having folk constantly posting "what rule says that BR isn't forced?" PLLEEAASSSSEEEEEE??????

[Edited by cbfoulds on Mar 4th, 2005 at 06:37 PM]