Is this a balk move?

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by Tim C

"Can a Right Handed F1, with first base occupied, bring his front leg up to chest height (not breaking the pane of the pitcher's plate) and from that position swing around to throw legally to 1st base."

If a left hander can use this move to 1st base why can't a righthander.

I tell you right now . . . every single umpire I have ever worked with would call this a balk.

So when the right hander passes an occupied first base in his counter-clockwise turn he has balked to first base.

Long answer and probably wrong. :-}

Apples and oranges, Tee.

In your "favorite" play, the pitcher has moved in such a way that any throw to first would not be a "continuous" movement (i.e., it's not a "direct step" toward first). With R1 only, you could even say it a motion assiciated with the pitch, and he failed to make a pitch. That's (those are) the rule that applies -- and it applies to both RH and LH pitchers.

On the play being discussed here, the motion was (assumed to be) continuous, so it's allowed.

Try it this way, RH pitcher, R2, R3. Pitcher spins "normally" past third and throw to second -- that's allowed. I don't think anyone has a problem with that. But, if the pitcher (and I'm not sure this can be done exactly as I write it) lifts his leg, extends it to thrd, fakes a throw to third, then continues the spin (foot has not yet touched the ground) and steps and throws to second -- that's a balk. Not for feinting to third, because that's allowed, but for failing to step "directly" toward second. IT's the same situation at first. It's not a feint to first until it's a feint to first.

[Tim C]

. . . that would be a balk to second base and we all know,

"It Is Impossible To Balk To Second Base."

:-}

Hopefully the humor is showing.