Immediate dead ball?

[greymule]

R1: 1 out. B1 hits to F6 who starts the 6-4-3 DP. R1 is obstructed by F3 but would have been out by a mile anyway. What's the ruling. The WUA was E-mailed and Rick Roder's Response was: Record the DP inning over.

I'm not saying I disagree with this ruling; in fact, it makes sense. But it's contrary to the conventional wisdom of a couple of years ago on this forum.

I don't see the relevance here of 7.06(b), which deals with a runner not being played on. In the play sent to Rick Roder, R1 is being played upon.

I thought that 7.06(b) was written for plays like this: Abel hits a ball that rolls to the fence in right center. He rounds first, crashes into F3, falls, has to untangle himself from F3, then limps into 2B as F9 is picking up the ball. We call OBS with the collision, but keep the ball live. When the play ends, we impose whatever penalties, if any, such as giving Abel 3B or even home.

Or: Abel singles, takes a routine turn at 1B, and trips over F3's foot as F4 is taking the throw at 2B. We call OBS, but do not award 2B since Abel wasn't really trying for 2B anyway. (I know that in Fed Abel would get 2B.)

Am I correct, then, that Rick Roder would call an out on the play I posted earlier?:

Abel on 2B, Baker on 1B, 2 outs. Charles his a hard one-hopper that F5 gloves moving to his right. A moment before F5 steps on 3B for the force on Abel, F6 obstructs Abel—60 feet from 3B.

(Remember, this is type A OBS, with the runner being played on.)

In any case, I'll be glad to know how to call this, because variations (perhaps not so extreme) are not all that uncommon. Or it still could be that I'm missing something obvious.