Runner on base out when hit?

[Rich]

Originally posted by Gee
If you read the original post it did not straight out say that a first baseman was making a play on the pop up but it inferred that when it said that the runner feared taking his foot off the base because he might get tagged out. If the F1 was not there where was he? Is that an unrealistic assumption? I think not.

With that said, it is my opinion the runner interfered with the fielder making a play on the pop up and under OBR 7.08(b) which is an obvious exception to OBR 7.08(f) the runner is not out providing he convinced the umpire he made a reasonable effort to avoid interfering while staying on the bag.

If you feel there was no fielder in the area to make the play use 7.08(f). I happen to think that's a stretch so I'm sticking with OBR 7.08(b). I don't think that is too hard to understand. G.

You're making up the interference, Gee. Nothing in the original play says this -- all it says is that a batted ball hit a runner on a base in front of a fielder. That's it. And that, in baseball is interference with the ball, and is an immediate dead ball out.

Your opinion is conjecture based on nothing mentioned in the original post.