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Old Wed Jan 10, 2001, 07:40pm
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Now let's just make sure I've got this situation straight:

-- Pitcher is in stretch but has not come set
-- Batter steps out and does not call time
-- Pitcher "toys" with the ball, and then breaks his hands apart, this the balk call under 8.05(j)

So are we to assume the pitcher technically came set while the batter was out of the box? Why couldn't his "toying" be judged as "momentarily adjusting" the ball, which is allowed? Why would a pitcher even want to come set without a batter?

But looking at the big picture, Jim, I do get your point. Just because the batter steps out, doesn't mean that 1)the ball becomes dead, or 2)the pitcher is immune from balking.
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