Time for my 2 cents...IMHO, I belive that a feint does not necessarily require a throwing motion, but it does require a step toward a base. In Carl's set-up, R1 is retired even though F1's pivot foot was still in contact with the rubber. NO balk, R3 and an out. Now the "what if": If F1 fakes to first, he'd better have separation from the rubber.
Should the pitcher be required to make a throwing motion to feint to a base? I think not. And as far as remaining on the rubber for the throw to first, should F1 be required to "become an infielder", thus providing potential for a bigger base award if the throw goes out of play? OR must F1 disengage the rubber before making the turn towards first?
Now i'm beginning to confuse myself!
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Tue Dec 12, 2000, 10:29pm
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