Balk with BOT - Question from Germany

[Warren Willson]

Originally posted by TM

Hi Marc, I'm at your heels again,

to answer your question: just by making NO BOT appeal

In this case the improper ends his at bat legally.

By this answer you can also see there is no sense in making a difference between the proper or the improper batter ends his at bat, the ACTUAL batter ends his at bat, that's the important point.

Whether there is a BOT appeal following is an absolut new thing.

TM

NO! The improper batter doesn't end his at bat "legally" until the next pitch, play or attempted play prevents any further appeal under 6.07(a)!

The rule on batting out of turn requires vigilance on the part of both the offense and the defense. If the defense fails to notice the error before they make a pitch, play or attempted play - an appeal is NOT a play or attempted play - only THEN does the advance of the improper batter become legal and permanently changes the subsequent batting order. Until then the whole "play" is in "limbo", just like any apparent run scored by a runner who missed a base in the process of advancing.

IMHO there is too much reliance on the false notion that an appeal for BOT is "an absolut new thing" or another "play" entirely. It isn't! An appeal is simply a request for the umpire to declare whether or not the immediately preceding play action was completed legally.

If the batter-runner's advance to 1st base was not completed legally, then neither was the forced advance of R1 - 6.07(b.2). That being the case R1 didn't "advance" on the play so he is entitled to advance on the balk penalty - 6.07(b.2)Note and 8.05 Penalty. The balk occurred during the improper batter's at bat. At that moment R1 was entitled to advance to 2nd base on the balk penalty UNLESS he already got there legally some other way. He didn't.

Hope this helps

Cheers