Balk with BOT - Question from Germany

[Warren Willson]

Originally posted by greymule
Still trying to see the light. What if, after the balk, BR had hit a home run. After the successful appeal for batting out of order, would you still put R1 on 2B, or is there something about the base on balls that's unique?

Yes, I would still put R1 on 2nd base, the base he would be entitled to because of the balk.

The improper batter-runner is removed from the bases and any advance he made is cancelled, including a home run. But R1 was NOT only entitled to advance on the base on balls that FOLLOWED the balk - under 8.05 Penalty he was also entitled to advance on the balk IF the other runners or the batter-runner did not reach the base to which they would be entitled BECAUSE of the balk. The proper batter did NOT reach 1st base LEGALLY, although it appears so pending the outcome of the BOT appeal. The proper batter did NOT reach 1st base at all!

The balk is a DELAYED DEAD BALL that is only effective when any play that follows is complete. The BOT appeal ensures that the following play, whether a hit an error a base on balls, or otherwise, is NOT fully complete until any appeal is determined. Appeals alter the results of plays every day.

If the appeal is upheld, enforce the balk.

If the appeal is denied, allow the walk.

Either way R1 is entitled to 2nd base.

If anyone still doubts the validity of that conclusion, here is the text of OBR 6.07(b.2)Note:

If a runner advances, while the improper batter is at bat, on a stolen base, balk, wild pitch or passed ball, such advance is legal.{my emphasis}

Maybe we will end up agreeing to disagree, just like the original poster and his German compatriots. I think the ruling is clear but I can easily accept that others may not. It has been fun discussing it though. On that we will almost always agree!

Cheers