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batter intentionally picks up a live ball
The batter walks on a pitch in the dirt. There are no oither runners on base. The ball deflects off the catcher and goes about 10 feet up the 1st baseline. The batter, while trotting toward 1st, decides to bend over and pick up the loose ball and tosses it back to the pitcher.
Should he be declared out for interfering with a live ball? It was clearly intentional. Yet, the defense was not in the process of making any play. David Emerling Memphis, TN |
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Or does it state that a batter runner is out for interfering with a PLAY (yes).
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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"TIME! Leave the ball alone."
You are correct in that he didn't "interfere" with any attempted play, so don't make a big deal out of it. Similar to having a runner on first who is not advancing on the pitch, and when the ball trickles out of the catcher's mitt the batter "helpfully" stops it with his foot. Same reaction from me - "Time - leave it alone." Of course, it's a different situation when that runner tries to advance, but that's for another post..... JJ |
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Did the batter interfere or assist?
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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When they picked up the ball ... was there a play? In neither of these is there a play.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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Common Sense Was it ball 4? --- Yes Were there any runners on base? --- No Was there any play to be made? --- No So why is this even a question?
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When in doubt, bang 'em out! Ozzy |
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Keep it simple and just kill the ball. It wouldn't matter if there were runners on base. Forced runners get to advance to the next base without liability to be put out. Non forced runners just stay put. Play on.
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"That's all I have to say about that." |
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Not true.
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