Tue Nov 08, 2016, 10:31am
|
 |
Keeper of the HAMMER
|
|
Join Date: Jan 2003
Location: MST
Posts: 27,190
|
|
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref
A2 wouldn't even have to catch the ball. B1 would only need to bat the ball such that it struck A1 or A2 for a violation to occur, if that interpretation were valid. That would be nonsense.
|
Good point.
__________________
Sprinkles are for winners.
|