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Originally posted by bob jenkins
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It's different because the throw-in hasn't started. If the throw-in hasn't started, there can't be a throw-in violation.
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Bob--
You answered my question about this in a previous thread, and I went back and looked through the books, to confirm your idea here. If this is the consensus of everyone, I'm willing to go with it, but it looks to me like an interpretation, not a hard and fast rule. The book says the throw-in starts when, "the ball is available to the player" who is going to in-bound. Well, if the ball is in the very hands of the team that didn't score, isn't that "available?" That is the only wording I could find anywhere in the books that applied in the way you are describing. Okay, so if Knox is interpreting this as "available" meaning that the player is holding the ball OOB, I'll live with that, but it seems pretty thin to me. Does this also apply if the ball is just sort of rolling along the floor and all five players run down court and no one grabs the ball? How much more available can the ball be than that?
Yikes, this sounds a little testy. I don't mean to raise my voice, I just feel confused.